IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam 2015
SECTION-I: GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSIONPART-A
Directions: (Qs. 1 to 10) Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:
Donny was a good bowler, and a good man. He was one of us. He was a man who loved the outdoors…. and bowling…., and as a surfer he explored the beaches of Southern California, from La Joll to Leo Carrillo and… up to… Pismo. He died, like so many young men of his generation, he died before his time. In your wisdom. Lord, you took him, as you took so many bright flowering young men at Khe Sanh, at Langdok, at Hill 364. These young men gave their lives. And so would Donny. Donny, who loved bowling. And so, Theodore Donald Karabotsos, in accordance with what we think your dying wishes might we have been, we commit your final mortal remains to the bosom of the Pacific Ocean, which you loved so well. Good night, sweet prince.
(A) Mournful eulogy1. In this passage, the speaker’s attitude towards Donny is primarily one of
(B) Unbiased detachment
(C) Clear hostility
(D) Elated nostalgia
2. The speaker’s attitude toward bowling can best be described as
3. In context, the tone of “In your wisdom, Lord, you took him, as yo0u took so many bright, flowering young men at Khe Sanh, at Langdok, at Hill 364,” is best described as
4. The speaker’s tone in the last two sentences is best described as
5. In “……. as you took so many bright, flowering young men…….” bright most, nearly mean
6. In “to the bosom of the Pacific ocean,” Bosom most nearly means
7. The reference to “Khe Sanh, at Langdok, at Hill 364” suggests
(A) Donny will be buried at Hill 364
(B) Donny died in combat
(C) The speaker misses these places
(D) The speaker also lost friends at these places
8. Lord refers to
(A) The king of Hill .364
(B) The Governor of California
(C) The God
(D) The President of U.S.A.
9. “Donny was a good bowler, and a good man” is a
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Complex-Compound sentence
10. In “He was man who loved the outdoors….. and bowling…,” bowling is
(A) A verb
(B) A noun
(C) An adjective
(D) An adverb
SECTION-II: LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING
Directions (Qs. 11 to 14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There are six members M, N, O, P, Q and R in a family, O is the sister of R, N is the brother-in-law of R’s mother, P is the father of M and R is the grandson of P. There are two ladies in the family.
11. Who is the mother of R?
12. The members of the family belong to how many generations?
(D) Either two or three
13. The two female members in the family are
(A) P, Q
(B) N, Q
(C) R, O
(D) O, Q
14. Who is the daughter of M and Q?
15. Find the missing number.
Directions (Qs. 16 to 19) : In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.
16. 0, 7, 26, 63, ? 215
17. 3, 16, 42, 81, 133, ?
18. 1, 8, 27, ?, 125, 216
19. 2, 9, 23, 51, 107, ?
20. Which pair is different in some way from the others in the following?
(A) Forest – Elephant
(B) Sea – Crocodile
(C) Passenger – Luggage
(D) Class – Student
21. If ‘Family’ is coded as 316459 and Sister’ is coded as 747820, then “Mistress’ will be coded as
22. If ‘boy’ is coded as AAQQZZ, then ‘cat’ will be coded as
Directions (Qs. 23 to 27): Read the following paragraph to answer questions that follow:
A and B play Cricket and Tennis, B and E play hockey, A and C play Volleyball, C and D play Hockey and Tennis and C and E play Football.
23. Who does not play Tennis?
24. Who plays Cricket, Tennis and Volleyball?
25. Who plays Cricket, Tennis and Volleyball?
26. Who plays only Hockey and Tennis?
27. Who plays Volleyball, Hockey, Tennis and Football?
Directions (Qs. 28 to 30): Read the following paragraph to answer the questions that follow:
A, B, C, D and E have seven balls each. B gives two balls to E, who gives one ball to A. C gives three balls to D, who gives two balls to A. E gives three balls to B, who gives two balls to C. B gives five balls to D.
28. How many balls does A have?
29. How many balls does C have?
30. Who has got the maximum number of balls now?
SECTION-III: EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS
31. The Speaker of Lok Sabha in India is elected by the
(A) Members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Loksabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Speakers of State Legislative Assemblies
32. The responsibility for farming the Constitution of Independent. India was entrusted to the
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
33. The amended Article 45 of our Constitution directs the State to promote
(A) Pre-school Education
(B) Primary Education
(C) Elementary Education
(D) Non-formal Education
34. According to NCTE regulations, a senior secondary teacher should possess
(A) Post-graduation degree
(B) Post-graduation degree with B.Ed.
(C) Post-graduation degree with M.Ed.
(D) Post-graduation with M.Phil.
35. What does three language formula imply?
(A) Three languages should be taught in schools.
(B) Examinations should be conducted in three languages.
(C) The study three languages should be made compulsory at the senior stage.
(D) Every student should three languages in schools.
36. What is an Open University?
A University that imparts education through
(A) Distance mode
(B) Correspondence mode
(C) Face-to-face interaction in classrooms
(D) Organization of the open book examinations
37. In India, ,Education Day is celebrated on the occasion of the birthday of
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Dr. Zakir Husain
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
38. The members of Lok Sabha in India are elected by
(A) All the citizens of India
(B) Citizens above the age of 21 years
(C) Registered voters
(D) Education citizens of India
39. Green Revolution made India self-sufficient in
(A) Milk production
(B) Green trees and plants
(C) Production of foodgrains
(D) Green forests
40. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aims at
(A) Enrolment of all girls in schools
(B) Enrolment of all boys in schools
(C) Enrolment of all children in schools
(D) Enrolment and completion of Elementary education by all children
41. The Central Universities are established in India by
(A) A Resolution of the Union Cabinet
(B) A Resolution of the Council of Ministers
(C) A Resolution of the Central Advisory Board of Education (CABE)
(D) An Act of Parliament
42. Which one of the following authorities has been entrusted with the responsibility for the redressel of grievances under the RTE Act, 2009?
43. Juvenile Justice Act applicable for children below the age of 18 years prescribe maximum punishment of
(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years
44. The name of Montessori is associated with
(A) Pre-school Education
(B) Special Education
(C) Secondary Education
(D) Primary Education
45. The National University for Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA) has the responsibility to
(A) Set up Universities
(B) Administer Schools and Colleges
(C) Conduct Research relating to Educational Planning
(D) Assessment of Higher Education Institutions
46. The corporal punishment in schools has been prohibited by the
(A) RTE Act, 2009
(B) Domestic Violence Act, 2005
(C) Child Labour Prohibition Act
(D) Juvenile Justice Act
47. Acharya Chanakya was a teacher in the Gurukul located at
48. Which one of the following is the major source of Vitamin D?
(B) Mineral Water
(C) Multigrain Bread
(D) Fruits and Vegetables
49. Scientific temperament means
(A) Temperament to take decisions on the basis of reasoning
(B) Interest in the study the science
(C) Ability to undertake scientific experiments
(D) Ability to speak on scientific themes
50. Who advocated for craft centred education?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Mahatma Phule
51. The declaration of the state of internal emergency in India in 1975 was approved by the
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chief of Army Staff
(D) President of India
52. Who became the Prime Minister of India after Rajiv Gandhi in 1989?
(A) V. P. Singh
(B) P. V. Narsimha Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar
53. The disease hypertension is also known as
(A) Low Blood Pressure
(B) High Blood Pressure
54. The T. V. serial ‘Bharat Ek Khoj’ was based on the book ‘Discovery of India’ written by
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
55. Comprehensive Evaluation means
(A) Evaluation in all school subjects
(B) Evaluation of student performance in scholastic and co-scholastic areas
(C) Question paper comprising all types of questions
(D) Question paper comprising questions from the entire syllabus
SECTION-IV: TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL
56. The major purpose of co-curricular activities in a school is to
(A) help students achieve well-adjusted personality
(B) provide relief from the usual classroom routine
(C) give students an orientation to the world of work
(D) provide for the vicarious satisfaction of the needs of students
57. The school curriculum should be planned to agree with
(A) the general culture of the school in the past
(B) the goals, purposes and interests of the students
(C) the training and interests of the teacher
(D) the available textbooks in various subjects
58. The effectiveness of the school supervision must be judged in terms of
(A) the greater community satisfaction
(B) the greater personal satisfaction
(C) the educed classroom misbehaviour
(D) the greater pupil progress towards the goals of education
59. The teacher’s first duty is towards the
(C) subject he/she teaches
(D) school authorities
60. The most important function of the teacher is to
(A) guide students’ growth
(B) provide remedial help wherever needed
(C) impart effective teaching
(D) maintain order and discipline in the class
61. The school children are likely to suffer the worst effects educationally from a teacher who
(A) is an emotionally immature individual
(B) has partial grasp or understanding of his/her subject
(C) cannot integrate the subject-matter
(D) cannot organize his/her subject logically
62. The major goal in the classroom discipline should be to promote
(A) good study conditions
(B) good student conduct
(C) quiet and order in the classroom
(D) self-direction on the part of students
63. As it applies to the classroom, the teacher’s role in motivation is essentially a matter of
(A) arousing needs in children
(B) channeling the energies of live and alert students into constructive activities
(C) creating new interests
(D) placing attracting incentives with him the reach of students
64. In developing a new topic or a lesson, the teacher should begin with
(A) an overview of the subject
(B) an explanation of the importance of the subject
(C) some interests already possessed by the students
(D) the teacher’s own interest
65. If the student seems to be fatigued from the mental work, the teacher should
(A) decrease the amount of work he/she has to do
(B) provide him/her with greater variety of tasks
(C) encourage him/her to develop persistence and ask him to continue despite fatigue
(D) increase the attractiveness of the rewards to be attained on continuing
66. The classroom discipline should be oriented towards
(A) social conformity
(B) personal and social adjustment
(D) acceptable classroom behaviour
67. In order for a lesson to be effective, it is necessary for the teacher to
(A) relate the material to the child’s experience
(B) organize the content so that the child can understand it as such
(C) Plan the lesson systematically
(D) explain the lesson giving examples and full details
68. When a child asks a question regarding subject-matter, the teacher should generally
(A) give straight answer to satisfy the child’s curiosity
(B) refer him to textbook or other references
(C) refer the question to another child for answer
(D) help the child arrive at his/her own answer
69. The rejected child is likely to be
(D) fearless and adventuresome
70. The crucial aspect of the evaluation of school learning is
(A) preparing tests
(B) judging adequacy of performance
(C) measuring growth
(D) assigning grades
71. In the context of school, continuous and comprehensive evaluation (CCE) implies
(A) continuous monitoring of teacher’s performance
(B) assessment of both scholastic and co-scholastic aspects of learning
(C) making teacher accountable to the parents and the school
(D) assessment not to be spread over the total instructional time
72. A good “Head” of an educational institution is the one who
(A) understands what is good educational administration and applies its principles with a strong hand
(B) is particularly careful about discipline and does not compromise with misconduct or misbehaviour
(C) is flexible in his/her approach and works cooperatively and with a human touch
(D) allows freedom to the staff and the students and least interferes in their affairs
73. Freedom in education implies that
(A) students should be allowed to do any activity if it facilitates learning
(B) students should be allowed to join any course of study that they are interested in
(C) students should be allowed to do any activity they like to do or are interested in
(D) All the above are implied
74. The political slogan “All human beings are equal,” infact means that
(A) from a certain angle, human beings are the same
(B) all human beings need to be given fair or equitable treatment
(C) all human beings need to be given the same opportunities
(D) all humans beings need to be given equal treatment
75. Objectives of education are not helpful in
(A) understanding child development
(B) selecting instructional material
(C) designing learning experiences
(D) preparing evaluation tools
76. In which of the following methods is the existing knowledge used to draw conclusions?
(A) Inductive reasoning method
(B) Deductive reasoning method
(C) Survey method
(D) Discovery method
77. The respect of the student for the teacher should stem primarily from the teacher’s
(A) legal authority
(B) status as an adult
(C) personal integrity and goodwill
(D) status as a parent substitute
78. The crucial aspect of scientific process is
(A) the problem
(B) the hypothesis
(C) the method
(D) the result
79. A child who reads the numbers wrongly has the following learning disability:
80. Which of the following comes first in the sequence of deriving a concept?
SECTION-IV: SUBJECTIVE COMPETENCE: (i) : SCIENCE
81. Large intestine in humans mainly carries out
(C) digestion of fats
(D) digestion of carbohydrates
82. The opening and closing of stomatal pores depend upon
(C) water in guard cells
(D) concentration of CO2 in stoma
83. Acid rain happens because the
(A) Sun heats up the upper layer of the atmosphere
(B) burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
(C) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst the clouds
(D) Earth’s atmosphere contains acid
84. Fuel used in thermal power plants is
(D) fossil fuels
85. The S.I unit of magnetic field intensity is
86. Autotrophic organisms include
(A) bacteria and virus
(B) bacteria and fungi
(C) green plants and some bacteria
(D) green plants and all bacteria
87. A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has
(A) only single bond
(B) only double bonds
(C) only triple bonds
(D) two double bonds and one single bond
88. Solubility of alcohol in water is due to
(A) low density o f alcohol
(B) volatile nature of alcohol
(D) hydrogen bonding
89. Which is the following has the most non-metallic character?
90. Which is the common method of reproduction in majority of fungi and bacteria?
(A) Binary fission
(B) Spore formation
(D) Multiple fission
91. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
92. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
(A) reptiles and mammals
(B) reptiles and birds
(C) fishes and amphibians
(D) amphibians and reptiles
93. The S.I. unit of converging ability of a lens is
94. The laws of reflection hold good for
(A) plane mirror only
(B) concave mirror only
(C) convex mirror only
(D) all mirrors irrespective of their shapes
95. Which one of the following is an example of biotic component of the environment?
96. An ecosystem includes
(A) all living organisms
(B) all non-living organisms
(C) both living and non-living organisms
(D) sometimes living and sometimes non-living organisms
97. Select the wrong
(A) Forests provide a variety of products
(B) Forests have greater plant diversity
(C) Forests do not conserve soil
(D) Forests conserve water
98. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(A) Lime juice
(B) Human blood
(C) Lime water
99. To get 2W resistance using 6W resistors, the number of them required is
100. Windmill is used in large scale in
102. The value of is
103. Two men on either side of a 75 m high tower observe the top of the tower with angles of elevation of 30° and 60° The distance between the two men is
104. The value of sin 25° cos 65° + cos 25° sin 65° is
105. The value of 2 tan2 45° + cos2 30° – sin2 60° is
106. The first and last terms of an A.P. are 5 and 45 respectively. How many terms, with common difference 4, are there in the A.P.?
107. The mean of first 8 observations is 18 and that of last 8 observations is 20. If the mean of all 15 observations is 19, the 8th observations is
108. In a hockey match, a player was able to score 6 goals in 30 matches. The probability that the player was able to score a goal is
109. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(A) 24 cm2
(B) 30 cm2
(C) 36 cm2
(D) 40 cm2
110. The diameter of a cone is 14 cm and its slant height is 9 cm. The area of its curved surface is
(A) 126 cm2
(B) 198 cm2
(C) 296 cm2
(D) 396 cm2
111. A metallic spherical ball of radius 4.2 cm is melted and recast into the shape of cylinder of radius 6 cm. The height of the cylinder will be
(A) 2.74 cm
(B) 3.24 cm
(C) 3.74 cm
(D) 4.24 cm
112. The area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm and sector angle of 60° is
113. An express train travels a distance of 420 km at a uniform speed. By increasing its speed by 10 km/hour it takes one hour less for the same journey. The original speed of the train is
(A) 45 km/hr
(B) 50 km/hr
(C) 55 km/hr
(D) 60 km/hr
114. A father is 25 years older than his son. Ten years back, the ratio between the ages of the father and the son was 2 : 1. The present age of the son is
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
115. Minimum pass marks for an examination are 45%. A student obtains 300 marks but fails by 60 marks. The total marks for the examination are
116. In a mixture weighing 50 kg, the ratio of copper and zinc is 3 : 2. Another 5 kg of zinc is added to mixture. The new ratio of copper to zinc will be
(A) 6 : 5
(B) 5 : 6
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 3 : 4
117. There are 300 people in an old age home. If each one is given 200 gms of ration daily, it is enough for 36 days. If 100 more people join the old age home and the ration is reduced to 180 gms per day, then the ration will be sufficient for
(A) 26 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 32 days
(D) 40 days
118. Mohan buys a pen for Rs. 121. If the wholesaler’s cost price is Rs. 100 and the shopkeeper and wholesaler earn profit at equal rate, then their percentage of profit is
119. Given, four distinct points, no three of them are collinear. Then the number of lines that can be drawn through them is
120. Circles are said to be concentric if
(A) they have same radius
(B) they have different collinear
(C) their centres are collinear
(D) they have the same centre
(iii): SOCIAL SCIENCE
121. Entry for normal loss is recorded in the
(A) Balance Sheet
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Trading Account
(D) None of the above
122. New capital issue is placed in the
(A) Secondary Market B.
(B) Primary Market
(C) Black Market
(D) None of the above
123. Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution?
124. Who is generally acknowledged as the pioneer of Local Self-Government in modern India?
125. Where was the Arya Samaj set up for the first time in 1875?
126. Alauddin Khilji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from
127. The tropical grassland is called
(D) None of the above
128. Which is the largest river system of the Peninsular region?
129. Buland Darwaza is associated with
130. Malik Kafur was the General of which Sultan?
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
131. The Indian sub-continent was originally a part of
132. Suez National Canal links up Mediterranean Sea with the
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) North Sea
(D) Red Sea
133. Karl Marx’s book Das Kapital was published in
134. Who propounded the market law?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J. B. Say
(C) T. R. Malthus
(D) None of the above
135. The Doctrine of Lapse owed its origin to
(A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Curzon
136. In Economics, the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
137. Who among the following was the first female Governor of a State in free India?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
138. Which one of the following represents the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
139. In faizabad, the Revolt of 1857 was led by
(B) Bakht Khan
(C) Khan Bahadur Khan
(D) Nana Saheb
140. The relationship between the ‘value of money’ and the ‘price level’ in an economy is
Directions (Qs. 141 and 142): In each of the following questions, some alternatives have been suggested for the idioms/phrase. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning.
141. “By leaps and bounds”
142. “A bolt from the blue”
(A) Something unexpected
(B) Something unpleasant
(C) Something horrible
(D) Something unexpected and unpleasant
143. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for “One who is good at any things”.
144. Choose the correctly spelt word
145. Choose the correctly spelt word.
146. Choose the indirect form of the following sentence.
Rajan said, “O that I were a child again!”
(A) Rajan exclaimed with wonder that he was a child again.
(B) Rajan wondered that were he a child again.
(C) Rajan wished that he had been a child again.
(D) Rajan wished that he were a child again.
147. Choose the indirect form of the following sentence:
The Manager said, “Well, what can I do for you?”
(A) The manager asked what he could do for him.
(B) The manager exclaim3ed what he could do for you.
(C) The manager wanted to know what he could do for you.
(D) The manager said that he couldn’t do anything for him.
148. The passive voice of “Who is creating this mess?” is
(A) Who was created this mess?
(B) By whom has this mess been created?
(C) By whom this mess is being created?
(D) By whom is this mess being created?
149. The active voice of “The clown was laughed at by them.” is
(A) They were laughing at the clown.
(B) They were laughing on the clown.
(C) They laughed at the clown.
(D) They were laughed at by the clown.
Directions (Qs. 150 to 152): Choose the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
150. Ramesh ………… the business deal without wasting any time.
151. I complimented him ……… his success in the examination.
152. The dramatist must cater ……… the taste of the audience.
153. Who said “A thing of beauty is a joy forever”?
154. Which one of the following is considered the last play of Shakespeare?
(C) The Winter’s Tale
155. Which one of the following poems is composed by John Keats?
(A) Ode to Duty
(B) Ode to the West Wind
(C) Ode to a Nightingale
(D) Ode on Solitude
156. Who is known as “The Prince of English Essayists”?
157. Shakespeare’s “Measure for Measure” is a
(C) Dumb show
158. Who said that “Hell is a city much like London”?
159. In the sentence “I shall write to you when I have time,” When I have time is a
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of these
160. In the sentence, “The boy who topped the class is my brother,” who topped the class is a
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of these